Codeforces Round 580 (Div. 2)
C
Almost Equal
Codeforces
未评级
原题
← BD →
翻译中…

You are given integer $n$. You have to arrange numbers from $1$ to $2n$, using each of them exactly once, on the circle, so that the following condition would be satisfied:

翻译中…

For every $n$ consecutive numbers on the circle write their sum on the blackboard. Then any two of written on the blackboard $2n$ numbers differ not more than by $1$.

翻译中…

For example, choose $n = 3$. On the left you can see an example of a valid arrangement: $1 + 4 + 5 = 10$, $4 + 5 + 2 = 11$, $5 + 2 + 3 = 10$, $2 + 3 + 6 = 11$, $3 + 6 + 1 = 10$, $6 + 1 + 4 = 11$, any two numbers differ by at most $1$. On the right you can see an invalid arrangement: for example, $5 + 1 + 6 = 12$, and $3 + 2 + 4 = 9$, $9$ and $12$ differ more than by $1$.

翻译中…

image

翻译中…

Input

翻译中…

The first and the only line contain one integer $n$ ($1 \le n \le 10^5$).

翻译中…

Output

翻译中…

If there is no solution, output "NO" in the first line.

翻译中…

If there is a solution, output "YES" in the first line. In the second line output $2n$ numbers — numbers from $1$ to $2n$ in the order they will stay in the circle. Each number should appear only once. If there are several solutions, you can output any of them.

翻译中…

Note

翻译中…

Example from the statement is shown for the first example.

翻译中…

It can be proved that there is no solution in the second example.

翻译中…

样例

Input #1
3
Output #1
YES
1 4 5 2 3 6
InputCopy OutputCopy
Input #2
4
Output #2
NO
InputCopy OutputCopy
题目信息
题号
1206C
时间限制
1 s
内存限制
256 MB

题面与样例版权归 Codeforces 及出题人所有;中文翻译由 AI 生成(CI 管线),如有出入请以原文为准。