Codeforces Round 446 (Div. 1)
A
Pride
Codeforces
1500
原题
←B →
翻译中…

You have an array $*a*$ with length $*n*$, you can perform operations. Each operation is like this: choose two adjacent elements from $*a*$, say $*x*$ and $*y*$, and replace one of them with $*gcd*(*x*, *y*)$, where $*gcd*$ denotes the greatest common divisor.

翻译中…

What is the minimum number of operations you need to make all of the elements equal to $1$?

翻译中…

Input

翻译中…

The first line of the input contains one integer $*n*$ ($1 ≤ *n* ≤ 2000$) — the number of elements in the array.

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The second line contains $*n*$ space separated integers $*a*_{1}, *a*_{2}, ..., *a*_{*n*}$ ($1 ≤ *a*_{*i*} ≤ 10^{9}$) — the elements of the array.

翻译中…

Output

翻译中…

Print -1, if it is impossible to turn all numbers to $1$. Otherwise, print the minimum number of operations needed to make all numbers equal to $1$.

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Note

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In the first sample you can turn all numbers to $1$ using the following $5$ moves:

翻译中…
  • $[2, 2, 3, 4, 6]$.
  • $[2, 1, 3, 4, 6]$
  • $[2, 1, 3, 1, 6]$
  • $[2, 1, 1, 1, 6]$
  • $[1, 1, 1, 1, 6]$
  • $[1, 1, 1, 1, 1]$
翻译中…

We can prove that in this case it is not possible to make all numbers one using less than $5$ moves.

翻译中…

样例

Input #1
5
2 2 3 4 6
Output #1
5
InputCopy OutputCopy
Input #2
4
2 4 6 8
Output #2
-1
InputCopy OutputCopy
Input #3
3
2 6 9
Output #3
4
InputCopy OutputCopy
题目信息
题号
891A
时间限制
2 s
内存限制
256 MB
标签
暴力
动态规划
贪心
数学
数论

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