Codeforces Round 462 (Div. 1)
E
A Preponderant Reunion
Codeforces
3200
原题
← D→
翻译中…

East or west, home is best. That's why family reunion, the indispensable necessity of Lunar New Year celebration, is put in such a position.

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After the reunion dinner, Little Tommy plays a game with the family. Here is a concise introduction to this game:

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  1. There is a sequence of $*n*$ non-negative integers $*p*_{1}, *p*_{2}, ..., *p*_{*n*}$ in the beginning. It is ruled that each integer in this sequence should be non-negative at any time.
  2. You can select two consecutive positive integers in this sequence, $*p*_{*i*}$ and $*p*_{*i* + 1}$ $(1 ≤ *i* < *n*)$, and then decrease them by their minimum (i. e. $*min*(*p*_{*i*}, *p*_{*i* + 1})$), the cost of this operation is equal to $*min*(*p*_{*i*}, *p*_{*i* + 1})$. We call such operation as a descension.
  3. The game immediately ends when there are no two consecutive positive integers. Your task is to end the game so that the total cost of your operations is as small as possible.
翻译中…

Obviously, every game ends after at most $*n* - 1$ descensions. Please share your solution of this game with the lowest cost.

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Input

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The first line contains one integer $*n*$ $(1 ≤ *n* ≤ 3·10^{5})$.

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The second line contains $*n*$ space-separated integers $*p*_{1}, *p*_{2}, ..., *p*_{*n*}$ $(0 ≤ *p*_{*i*} ≤ 10^{9}, *i* = 1, 2, ..., *n*)$.

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Output

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In the first line print one integer as the number of descensions $*m*$ $(0 ≤ *m* ≤ *n* - 1)$.

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In the next $*m*$ lines print the descensions chronologically. More precisely, in each line of the next $*m*$ lines print one integer $*i*$ $(1 ≤ *i* < *n*)$ representing a descension would operate on $*p*_{*i*}$ and $*p*_{*i* + 1}$ such that all the descensions could be utilized from top to bottom.

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If there are many possible solutions to reach the minimal cost, print any of them.

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Note

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In the first sample, one possible best solution is image, of which the cost is $1 + 1 = 2$.

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In the second sample, one possible best solution is image, of which the cost is $1 + 1 + 1 = 3$.

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样例

Input #1
4
2 1 3 1
Output #1
2
1
3
InputCopy OutputCopy
Input #2
5
2 2 1 3 1
Output #2
3
2
1
4
InputCopy OutputCopy
题目信息
题号
933E
时间限制
2 s
内存限制
256 MB
标签
构造
动态规划

题面与样例版权归 Codeforces 及出题人所有;中文翻译由 AI 生成(CI 管线),如有出入请以原文为准。